"Tell me, what would you consider proof of god to be?"
There are many aspects to this question in itself, so I'll identify a few proofs as best I can.
A proof could be things or events of a miraculous nature; further proven by having this said object or event tailored specifically to the intent or inquiries of the person who is seeking the answer or proof. On a personal level, this makes the proof individually subjective, but the nature of the miracle itself is what makes it objective--at least, on a mass scale. An example of a miracle that may act as evidence for the existence of a higher power (drawing an example from the Bible) is the conception of Christ in Mary. The fact that she was a virgin and conceived falls well outside of any explainable, scientific phenomenon.
That said, let's address another issue with your statement (since you are apparently a child of semantics). To say there is "proof" of anything (in any matter--whether it be legal, religious, etc.) is a fallacy. As the question relies on the most accurate interpretation of a human experience, and the evidence given by that experience. That said, the question is not as simple as a mathematics equation, any miraculous event, no matter how convincing, baffling, or resonating it may be, is not a
proof of God's existence, but simply acts as
evidence for His existence. In the end, the decision of whether someone is going to believe in God or any sort of faith relies on their choice.
There is an exception to this, however, and may act as an definite proof (on an individual or mass scale): If God himself came before the person. However, the difference is also the scaling of the event. If God were to appear before a single person, the event would probably call into question the sanity of that person and this is understandable, as skepticism does hold it's place in any case of proving an event or axiom, but there is a difference between reasonable skepticism and outright denial. That is my point. To say someone is a "fundamentalist" is simply an educated way of calling someone a zealot or denialist. Dawkins is, by all accounts (including his own) a denialist. He will deny the existence of God or the truth of a faith (especially the Christian faith) from here until the end of time. Even if God were to appear in front of him.
"I agree not all religious people are rigid in their beliefs, unfortunately the ones who are not so rigid do not get enough recognition to get into a position where they would be a viable person to debate with on any kind of coverage. This is because they simply do not agree with much of what the leaders of their religion say. They do not get the backing necessary to get to a point where they can say something new." I'm Mormon and I can confidently say that I agree with my leaders with every aspect of my Church's doctrine. To say that positions such as mine are not common or "are not covered" is simply false... that said, you may want to research the works of prominent apologists and Professors such as Zacharias, Hart, McGrath, or (in my specific case) the works of the Foundation for Apologetic Information & Research. These are all well-publicized and reasonable apologists and people with whom Dawkins refuses to debate with.
"Indeed if they DO manage to get to a position where they can debate with the likes of Richard Dawkins--" I stopped reading that paragraph about there.
1. Dawkins REFUSES to debate with prominent or reasonable theologians. In this case, he is referring to theologians who wish to debate with him on the topic of creationism vs. evolution: "what they seek is the oxygen of respectability", and doing so would "give them this oxygen by the mere act of
engaging with them at all". He suggests that creationists "don't mind being beaten in an argument. What matters is that we give them recognition by bothering to argue with them in public."
2. What you are implying is that Dawkins has been the "extending hand" here, which (as the overwhelming evidence of his behavior CLEARLY suggests) is not the case. If anything, he has propagated his asinine, denialist behavior.
"I often wonder why people think that semantics are unimportant, they are in fact exceptionally important..."
There is a definite importance to formal, lexical, and conceptual semantics, but what you are referring to is the importance for a party to
shift their semantics in a formal argument so that their position is caught in a more favorable light. This isn't a behavior that should be encouraged. It is asinine, and makes debating with the opposing party nearly impossible. I've already stated that isn't the way this is gonna go down, cupcake. If you try to shift Dawkins actual position, I will call you out on it.
"Unless you are very careful in how you phrase your arguments you can end up arguing a completely different position to the one that you hold, take another look at the quote. We are not talking about theology in general, we are talking, very specifically, about the actions asserted to be taken by God in the OT. And in the actions he takes, he shows to have pretty much all the traits that Richard Dawkins stated in this quote."
Semantics only gets complicated when you are trying to shift your party's actual position. He said "Christian theology" which means ALL aspects of the Christian faith. If he said, "God and the Old Testament are a non-subject, vacuous, etc." then your argument would hold water, but he didn't say that. He was making a gross generalization and outright false statements. But for the sake of an honest debate, I'll humor you. Let's break down Dawkins' gaffe, shall we?
"Yes, I have, of course, met this point before..." Surprise, surprise... he has been called out on his ignorance of Christian theology before. This is pretty straight forward.
"It sounds superficially fair. But it presupposes that there is something in Christian theology to be ignorant about." Translation: "This sounds fair on the surface, but the accusation is made under the assumption that there is anything about Christian Theology to be ignorant about." One can only draw two conclusions from this: Either Dawkins is an expert on the subject of Christian theology, or he is implying that Christian theology is so shallow and empty that there is nothing to be ignorant about. Both are granduerous implications that demand equally granduerous evidence for his claim. So what does he say next?
"The entire thrust of my position is that Christian theology is a non-subject. It is empty. Vacuous. Devoid of coherence or content..." O...kay...? Yes, we know you have a disdain for faith--Christianity specifically. Now, what is your proof of this outrageous claim?
"...I imagine that McGrath would join me in expressing disbelief in
fairies,
astrology and
Thor's hammer. How would he respond if a fairyologist, astrologer or Viking accused him of ignorance of their respective subjects?" Wait... so... your "proof" of Christian theology being a "non-subject" is an non-conclusive assumption of what McGrath would do in regards to knowledge of other faiths? First off, McGrath is a College theologian--a professor in the field of religion. Which means, his job is to collect information about other faiths and their perception of all things material and non-material. Second, how can what McGrath would personally agree or disagree with with in regards to "fairies, astrology, and Thor's hammer" be considered an academic proof to his claim of knowing for a FACT that Christian theology (meaning
every. single. aspect. of the Christian faith) has no substance or no "coherence?" The short answer is HE CAN'T! Dawkins argument
makes no fucking sense.
Now, if Dawkins were to say, "Well, McGrath doesn't know anything about genes, memes, evolution, etc." THEN his argument, MIGHT hold water on the condition that he can provide concrete evidence of McGrath's ignorance, but no... he didn't do that. He made an appeal to consequence, an appeal to emotion, and ad hominem all at once by basically saying, "McGrath is a doo-doo head because he disagrees with fairies, astrology, and Thor's hammer."
That is a strawman: He is misrepresenting McGrath in an attempt to discredit the simple point that Dawkins does not know what the fuck he is talking about in regards to Christian theology.
"I am also sorry that you appear to be completely mistaking the reason for why he wishes the KJV to be studied. He is not endorsing the religion, he is not saying that the things it says are to be taken as fact, he is instead saying that it can, and should, be taken as a literary work of art in it's own right, regardless of your stance on what it expounds."
Ya know, for supposedly understanding the ins-and-outs of semantics, you sure can't read well. I never said he was endorsing religion. I simply said that if he was encouraging the KJV of the bible to be read and understood, I agree with him. I never said anything about endorsing or encouraging faith (even though those are my overall goals). I do recognize that if a person is not interested in acquiring faith, or believing in God, that reading the KJV can be informative in regards to theology and English literature.
"As for whether he will actually entertain the existence of God, I honestly think he has a position very similar to my own. He has spoken to many people who claim that there is evidence of God's existence, and yet he has always seen flaws in their reasoning, has always found holes in their evidence, and upon examining the world around him he has come to believe that there is simply no evidence suggesting that the god many people believe in exists, further in a case like this he also believes that absence of evidence is evidence of absence."
Human experience is not as simple as a mathematic equation. If a person develops an axiom, has faith that axiom is true, and then has that axiom proven or disproven by way of progressive evidence, then you can have people led to a different conclusion. But again, what is getting mired in Dawkins' head is the difference between proofs and evidence. To search for God by means outlined by rigid scientific method is possible, but incomplete because it only covers that which is observable. And to say the human experience is only limited to that which is observable is not only fallacious, but shallow.
"In other words he has often said, and I agree, that if the God of peoples faith existed, then we would not be living in the world as it exists now..." Correction: The world would not exists how he perceives it.
"He does not, and to my knowledge has never said, that God
cannot exist," Have you
read "The God Delusion?"
"He says instead that the specific version of god being debated at that point in time cannot exist," This is an axiom that he assumes to be true.
"..and yes these are mere semantics, but the difference in position is crucial and considerable." Every argument has a measure of semantics. However, I do appreciate that you have not expressed a shift in semantics.